So I had this interesting thought earlier: What if there were an effectively 100% (let's say ~99.999%) chance of pregnancy every time any two people of different genders (with both being of childbearing age and with the female not being already pregnant) have sexual intercourse without reliable contraception? Would the unintended pregnancy rate in first world countries go up, go down, or remain about the same? Possible argument for going down: people might rely on unreliable contraception, such as the rhythm method or pulling out, less often. Possible argument for going up: people are still going to behave like they do now because lust and logic don't go together. Discuss away! For the purposes of this thread, consider 'reliable contraception' to include the pill, the shot, male/female sterilization, Implanon/Jadelle, IntraUterine System, CIC, copper IUD, LAM for first 6 months postpartum, Lea's Shield + spermicide, the patch, the ring, and the minipill. Pulling out, the rhythm method, male/female condoms, etc. are not considered 'reliable contraception' for purposes of this thread.